Something still isn't adding up for me. If one allows the court to place "value" on the fetus, then that introduces the possibility of that happening in an abortion situation. It seems you'd be ok with a civil suit being brought by a father against the mother who chose to have the child aborted and the court could assign "value" to the fetus and award damages accordingly. Is that what you're saying?
No. Because no matter what value is assigned to the fetus, a woman has the right to do as she will with her own body. That rule, for me, tops everything else. The question of value comes up only if someone
else harms the fetus against the mother's wishes.