GregR_2
Footballguy
Correct. There is an equal chance of each of those 2-child families resulting.If the question was, "What are the odds that any child in a 2-child family is a girl", then any of the children could be the one referred to and there are 4 chances at being a boy and 4 at being a girl, and the answer would be 50/50. (This wasn't the question asked).These are the possiblities of the SEQUENCE:BBOkay I'm rethinking this;
The way I wee it, there are four possibilities; we're talking about a specific kid (TOM) and he has either
A - older sister
B - older brother
C - younger sister
D - younger brother
In two cases he has a sister, and two a brother. So now I'm thinking 50/50. What am I missing?
BG
GB
GG
The middle two are the same when talking about PROBABILTY.
If the question was "What are the odds that the younger child is a girl", then there are 2 younger boys and 2 younger girls it could refer to, and the odds would be 50/50. (This wasn't the question asked either).
The question asked had the father telling us that one of his children (we don't know which) is a boy. This means it can't be a GG family and the potential set of children has now become:
BB
BG
GB
GG
Further, we are asked the sex of the child that is not the boy the father referred to. So we can eliminate one boy from each family as being the boy that the father referred to:
BB
BG
GB
GG
There are only 3 children remaining with the same probability of being the one the father is referring to. 1 is a boy, and 2 are girls. Thus the 2/3 chance she is a girl, when we know the information that the father gave us. If we didn't have that information that he has a different child that is a son, then we couldn't eliminate those possibilities and it would just be a 50/50 chance.