TLEF316
Footballguy
So this morning in my basketball league, a sort of strange play happened. The other team was inbounding the ball underneath their offensive basket (I believe one of our players had just blocked one of their shots out of bounds). They throw the ball in bounds (in the front court), but the pass is a little wild and its pretty clear the intended recipient wont catch it cleanly. So he proceeds to purposely tap the ball away from his defender into the back court where one of his teammates recovers possession.
Obviously you are allowed to throw the ball directly into the backcourt on an inbounds play like this. But in this situation, the player purposely tapped ball back over the line in order to retain possession. Technically, 2nd player never had clear possession of the ball (which is why the ref eventually decided that the play was fine) but it was very obviously an intentional attempt to tap the ball to an open teammate.
I'm thinking the ref (who I've known for basically my entire life and knows his stuff) was probably correct to allow the other team to keep possession but this just seemed really odd. Is it strictly a judgement call on when the 2nd player officially has possession (then making the tap a "pass" and a backcourt violation) or can any obviously intentional play on the ball be enough to trigger the violation?
edit: after the game, the ref compared it to a rebound being tapped into the back court. Even on an intentional tap, that's obviously ok. However, since the ball was being inbounded, my argument was that they had team control (as opposed to a rebound, which is up for grabs) so it isn't the same thing.
Obviously you are allowed to throw the ball directly into the backcourt on an inbounds play like this. But in this situation, the player purposely tapped ball back over the line in order to retain possession. Technically, 2nd player never had clear possession of the ball (which is why the ref eventually decided that the play was fine) but it was very obviously an intentional attempt to tap the ball to an open teammate.
I'm thinking the ref (who I've known for basically my entire life and knows his stuff) was probably correct to allow the other team to keep possession but this just seemed really odd. Is it strictly a judgement call on when the 2nd player officially has possession (then making the tap a "pass" and a backcourt violation) or can any obviously intentional play on the ball be enough to trigger the violation?
edit: after the game, the ref compared it to a rebound being tapped into the back court. Even on an intentional tap, that's obviously ok. However, since the ball was being inbounded, my argument was that they had team control (as opposed to a rebound, which is up for grabs) so it isn't the same thing.
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