KarmaPolice
Footballguy
Does that mean that independents had more in those elections? Ie a majority of the popular vote would be 50.0000001%, so were there years it was something like 49% winner, 48% loser, 3% 3rd party. The other 5 are different b/c it was years were it was 51% winner of popular vote/loser of EC 49% of popular vote/winner of EC.Seems I maybe mistaken about the importance of the EC to keep things on an e en playing field.You’re assuming all of the people in these metropolitan areas vote the same. They don’t. Also, if it were “one person, one vote” why would you care where those votes are coming from?So the population of the US is 332,423,650. The population of the 15 largest metropolitan areas in the US is 108,814,949. So top 15 close to a 3rd of the population. If you include top 30 I'm sure it gets real close to half the population.Why is the Electoral College superior to a system where every vote counts equally and the candidate with the most votes wins?
We all know how metropolitan areas vote. So 30 cities should determine who the President is ?
It seems there has been 19 times that the winner did not receive the major of popular vote per wiki. Article also states there has been 5 times that the winner actually has lost popular vote. That confuses me a little isn't that the same.
Anyway guess I was wrong. I've been wrong once before and that was because I thought I was wrong but I was really right.
Here is the article. Click on list.