Gun ownership seems to be dropping rapidly:
http://www.nytimes.c...rvey-shows.html
Apparently those stories we've all read in recent weeks about gun sales going crazy were limited mostly to people who already own guns, and who had paranoid fears about new gun control laws.
But if the rate of legal gun ownership has dropped starkly over the past four decades (as the article notes) while gun violence has increased over that same span (as statistics reflect) wouldn't that show that gun violence was lower when legal gun ownership was more widespread?That article supports the arguments that many in this thread have made that this issue is not gun violence as a supposed natural offspring of gun ownership, but instead as a shift in the culture where gun violence is most prevalent.
Gun violence has has dropped, not increased. And the article makes note of that and draws a connection:
Tom W. Smith, the director of the General Social Survey, which is financed by the National Science Foundation, said he was confident in the trend. It lines up, he said, with two evolving patterns in American life: the decline of hunting and a sharp drop in violent crime, which has made the argument for self-protection much less urgent.
Regarding the highlighted -- From when?Agenda driven pieces almost always pick an arbirtrary date that just so happens to be the absolute zenith of the issue that they are saying America is improving in because of the policies they advocate. Those with the same agenda nod along approvingly without taking a widerscope view on the issue.
The following are two charts that prove my point.
First, here's a 20th Century American homicide chart which reflects the same trick played when people claim that murder is down in America. From when? From the zeniths in the late 70s and early 90s, but certainly not from the nadir in the late 50s.
http://madeinamericathebook.files.wordpress.com/2010/05/homicides-1900-20062.jpg
If gun ownership decreased over the past four decades (since 1970) we can presume that gun ownership was was higher a decade before in 1960. Yet statistics do show that gun violence was far less in 1960 then it is now. In fact, gun violence peaked in the early 90s -- a couple decades after the percent of households legally owning guns had already begun to decline.
http://blogs-images.forbes.com/matthewherper/files/2012/12/weapons23.png
Granted, gun violence is down from the highpoint in the early 90s, but why are we comparing only against that high point which it's evident that the article is doing? And if gun ownership was already declining for a couple decades by the time that high point was reached it seems nonsensical to conclude that a reduction in gun ownership is the primary cause for reduced gun crime since the 1990s.
You might also want to look at statistics in pockets of America like Chicago and Detroit where gun violence is surging the past couple of years. If gun violence is declining throughout America why is it surging in areas within America that have a lower rate of legal gun ownership?