M
MelvinTScupper
Guest
Recently, an FBGer bragged about his ability to outdo Dodds/Bryant for rankings. He chose his top 75 players, and we used Dodd/Bryants for 75 players.
At year end, we took FBG's dominator rankings and plugged them into the DD.
When comparing for variances, this yet-to-be-named FBGer claimed that at worst, a player would be compared against 76 for players that didn't end up in the top 75. Thus, even if his #22 pick finished 353rd in the league, he should only have a variance of 54, instead of 178 (vs 200) or 378 (vs 400)
The other FBGer claimed that since even the most basic league goes nearly 200 deep for a draft (15 spots X 12 teams) it needed to compare against a higher variance. Since the dominator uses 200/400, shouldn't that be the baseline?
by the first FBGers method, the variance is smaller, and by the second FBGers method, the variance is larger.
What say you, Shark Poolers??
At year end, we took FBG's dominator rankings and plugged them into the DD.
When comparing for variances, this yet-to-be-named FBGer claimed that at worst, a player would be compared against 76 for players that didn't end up in the top 75. Thus, even if his #22 pick finished 353rd in the league, he should only have a variance of 54, instead of 178 (vs 200) or 378 (vs 400)
The other FBGer claimed that since even the most basic league goes nearly 200 deep for a draft (15 spots X 12 teams) it needed to compare against a higher variance. Since the dominator uses 200/400, shouldn't that be the baseline?
by the first FBGers method, the variance is smaller, and by the second FBGers method, the variance is larger.
What say you, Shark Poolers??