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Odds Question (1 Viewer)

otello

Footballguy
You have 10 cards, marked 1 to 10.  You shuffle them.  You turn over the first card and say 1, then the second and say 2, etc.

What are the odds that you can get through all 10 cards without turning over a card that matches the number you are saying?

 
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You have 10 cards, marked 1 to 10.  You shuffle them.  You turn over the first card and say 1, then the second and say 2, etc.

What are the odds that you can get through all 10 cards without turning over a card that matches the number you are saying?
This is a permutation without repetition. There are 10x9x8x7x6x5x4x3x2x1 possible outcomes when flipping over the cards. Am I correct in saying that you want to know what are the odds that none of the cards get shuffled into the position their number represents (the card labeled 6 ending up in the 6th spot for example)? 

 
(.9 X 8/9 X 7/8 X 6/7 X 5/6 X 4/5 X 3/4 X 2/3 x 1/2) I believe. You can't do the last card because it will be the only option left to you so you will never avoid it.

ETA: Assuming you can only pick from the numbers remaining.

 
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(.9 X 8/9 X 7/8 X 6/7 X 5/6 X 4/5 X 3/4 X 2/3 x 1/2) I believe. You can't do the last card because it will be the only option left to you so you will never avoid it.

ETA: Assuming you can only pick from the numbers remaining.
This was my very first thought too, but I'm pretty sure it's wrong.  Consider Card 10.  There is a 9-in-10 chance that it has already been drawn by the time you get down to the final card.  

 
This was my very first thought too, but I'm pretty sure it's wrong.  Consider Card 10.  There is a 9-in-10 chance that it has already been drawn by the time you get down to the final card.  
It depends if you see and know every card pulled along the way. I took it to mean you guess and then pull a card. Then once you see that card you guess again for the next draw.

 
It depends if you see and know every card pulled along the way. I took it to mean you guess and then pull a card. Then once you see that card you guess again for the next draw.
Ah, I see.  I'm visualizing the problem differently.  I'm thinking it's like the cards have been dealt out into ten positions, and what are the odds that Card 1 is not in Position 1, and Card 2 is not in Position 2, and Card 3 is not in Position 3, and so on.  

 
Ah, I see.  I'm visualizing the problem differently.  I'm thinking it's like the cards have been dealt out into ten positions, and what are the odds that Card 1 is not in Position 1, and Card 2 is not in Position 2, and Card 3 is not in Position 3, and so on.  
I read how you did.

 
I get      (n-1) / n * 1/2       where n is the number of cards.  So for 10 cards  9/10 * 1/2 = 9/20 = 45%

It works for sure on n = 2, 3, 4, 5 cause I tried wrote in out in xcel.  I assume it carries on.

There are n! ways to arrange the cards.  If any one of the numbers on the cards alligns to the order you lose.

so for n = 3 you have 6 possible orders of which none of the ones that start with 1 will be right so that is where we get the (n-1)/n of the remaining half will be winning and half wont regardless of n.

1 2 3 - x
1 3 2 - x

2 1 3 - x
2 3 1
3 1 2
3 2 1 - x

 

 
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10 cards shuffled at random 

I turn over 1st card, and say 1, the card is a 3.  I continue on.

I turn over the second card, and say 2, and the card is an 8.  I continue on.

I turn over the third card, say three, and the card is 5.  I continue on.

4th card, say 4, and I turn over a 4.  Game over.

What are the odds I turn over all ten cards, counting to ten as I do it, and don't turn over the card with a number that matches the xth card I am turning over?

is that clearer?

 
10 cards shuffled at random 

I turn over 1st card, and say 1, the card is a 3.  I continue on.

I turn over the second card, and say 2, and the card is an 8.  I continue on.

I turn over the third card, say three, and the card is 5.  I continue on.

4th card, say 4, and I turn over a 4.  Game over.

What are the odds I turn over all ten cards, counting to ten as I do it, and don't turn over the card with a number that matches the xth card I am turning over?

is that clearer?
Did I read it wrong in my answer above?  should be the same

 
Pretty complicated little problem. You have 10 events without replacement complicated by dependent elimination.  Might be a little above my capability.

 
I would think it would be:

Getting a 1 on the first card: 1/10

Getting a 2 on the second card: 1/9

Getting a 3 on the third card: 1/8

And so on until Getting a 10 on the last card: 1/1

Multiply them all together and you would get:

1/10! or 1/3628800

 
I would think it would be:

Getting a 1 on the first card: 1/10

Getting a 2 on the second card: 1/9

Getting a 3 on the third card: 1/8

And so on until Getting a 10 on the last card: 1/1

Multiply them all together and you would get:

1/10! or 1/3628800
No, there are 36628800 possible permutations in this problem, but many more than just 1 that has would cause him to "lose". Just look at the most simple level: card 1 could be in the 1st spot or card 2 could be in the 2nd spot. That is already more than 1 possible losing scenario. What you calculated are the odds that the cards are in the exact order of 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10. 

 
No, there are 36628800 possible permutations in this problem, but many more than just 1 that has would cause him to "lose". Just look at the most simple level: card 1 could be in the 1st spot or card 2 could be in the 2nd spot. That is already more than 1 possible losing scenario. What you calculated are the odds that the cards are in the exact order of 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10. 
Ah I see what you are saying.  Yep, my bad.

 
1/e.  (Or at least, pretty close to that.)

Longer answer, provided without proof: 

Given a(1) = 0 and the recurrence relation a(n) = n*a(n-1) + (-1)^n, then if you have n cards numbered 1 to n in random order, the probability that no card's rank will match its place in the deck is a(n) / n!  That sequence converges to 1/e pretty quickly. 

 
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No, there are 36628800 possible permutations in this problem, but many more than just 1 that has would cause him to "lose". Just look at the most simple level: card 1 could be in the 1st spot or card 2 could be in the 2nd spot. That is already more than 1 possible losing scenario. What you calculated are the odds that the cards are in the exact order of 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10. 
Whoops, I thought you were trying to match the number....my bad.

 
No, there are 36628800 possible permutations in this problem, but many more than just 1 that has would cause him to "lose". Just look at the most simple level: card 1 could be in the 1st spot or card 2 could be in the 2nd spot. That is already more than 1 possible losing scenario. What you calculated are the odds that the cards are in the exact order of 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10. 
Wait, isn't this wrong?  Shouldn't it be 9/10*8/9*7/8*6/7*5/6*4/5*3/4*2/3*1/2 or 10%?

 
Wait, isn't this wrong?  Shouldn't it be 9/10*8/9*7/8*6/7*5/6*4/5*3/4*2/3*1/2 or 10%?
How does your post make my post wrong? I was commenting to the number of possible permutations and showing that there are better odds than 1/ 10!

I think 10% is right myself 

 
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I think with 4 cards there are 9 out of 24 combinations that work?

2143

2341

2413

3142

3421

3412

4123

4312

4321

3 numbers would be 2/6.

n! seems right on the bottom.

 
Lets try it for n=4.  The problem states you want to know the odds of not turning the card which matches the turn it is.

1, 2, 3, 4 - x
1, 2, 4, 3 - x
1, 3, 2, 4 - x
1, 3, 4, 2 - x
1, 4, 2, 3 - x
1, 4, 3, 2 - x
2, 1, 3, 4 - x
2, 1, 4, 3 - o
2, 3, 1, 4 - x
2, 3, 4, 1 - o
2, 4, 1, 3 - o
2, 4, 3, 1 - x
3, 1, 2, 4 - x
3, 1, 4, 2 - o
3, 2, 1, 4 - x
3, 2, 4, 1 - x
3, 4, 1, 2 - o
3, 4, 2, 1 - o
4, 1, 2, 3 - o
4, 1, 3, 2 - x
4, 2, 1, 3 - x
4, 2, 3, 1 - x
4, 3, 1, 2 - o
4, 3, 2, 1 - o

24 possible orders the cards can be laid out.  9 times you get through with out matching the turn number out of 24 or 3/8.  

The formula I end up with is (n-1) / n X 1/2 or 3/4 x 1/2 for this example.  The reason this works is that all the permutations that start with 1 are no good so that leaves (n-1)/n of those half are the good ones.

 
Shouldn't it just be  3/4 * 2/3 * 1/2 ? That gives us the number of "winning options" over the total number of options while accounting for no repetition. 

 

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