I understand it is part of the CBA that there is a Cap hit when a team trades a player, but my question is, which party fought to have it be a part of the agreement? For example, Chad Johnson is pretty unhappy and trying to force a trade. His team would like to move him, but can't because of the hit (estimated at 8 million). So now, CJ wants to be traded, but can't and his team wants to move him but can't either. Who does this benefit??
The only thing I can see as to why this would be there is because of the fear that players would start forcing the trade issue more frequently, but it already seems to be happening and then if the player is forced to stay, creates discontent between the player and team.
If player A is set to make 5 million in one year and another team has $5 million or more in cap space, why isn't it looked at as a true transfer of money? It seems (and I could be wrong) that both trading teams get hit on the cap for one player salary. Team A gets hit for moving the player and Team B gets hit because now they have the player on their squad.
Honestly, any insight would be helpful.
The only thing I can see as to why this would be there is because of the fear that players would start forcing the trade issue more frequently, but it already seems to be happening and then if the player is forced to stay, creates discontent between the player and team.
If player A is set to make 5 million in one year and another team has $5 million or more in cap space, why isn't it looked at as a true transfer of money? It seems (and I could be wrong) that both trading teams get hit on the cap for one player salary. Team A gets hit for moving the player and Team B gets hit because now they have the player on their squad.
Honestly, any insight would be helpful.