Just Win Baby said:
IMO it is a mistake to project him to miss games. He has proven to be very durable, to state the obvious. Yes, he is old, but he's been old for a few years now. He is prideful, and IMO the streak is important to him. I think that means he won't let injuries like sprained ankles or cracked ribs keep him out... it would take something more serious, like ACL, achilles, broken bones, etc. And what is the basis upon which someone can project such a serious injury?
The more I think about it, the more I'd like to hear the FBG rationale for projecting him to miss 2 games. Can David or Joe or someone weigh in on that? I can only imagine a few possible answers:1. Concern over his ankle, since it required surgery and has supposedly continued bothering him. But he is now practicing, so why would anyone think it would lead to 2 (and exactly 2) missed games? Is the thinking that he'll miss the first 2 games because it will take that long for the ankle to be ready? If so, based on what? Or is the thinking that he'll miss 2 games later in the season because it will be reaggravated? If so, that is nothing more than speculation IMO.
2. Concern over his age and the likelihood of a different/new injury. For example:
2a. QBs on average miss approximately 2 games (if that is true). This would seem to be a poor rationale, since Favre has shown for 19 seasons that he isn't average in terms of durability. I know some FBG staff always project less than 16 games because of general averages, and I have always disagreed with that approach... Favre is a perfect example of why, along with others like Peyton and Rivers.
2b. A refinement of 2a using a sample focused on old QBs. Perhaps this would show that older QBs miss more time on average than younger QBs; I'm not sure. But I'd argue that Favre has shown throughout his career that he is much more durable than most QBs, so why wouldn't he also be much more durable than most old QBs?
3. The law of averages - he is due for an injury. But he's "been due" for 19 years, so why now? And this kind of vague reasoning doesn't really strike me as typical for FBG projections.
Have I missed some other rationale? I'm very curious to hear the reasoning behind it.