Billy Bats
Footballguy
I'm in an AL v NL fantasy baseball league with two divisions. One Al, the other NL. When players get traded for each other and switch leagues, if both guys are on active rosters, they swap fantasy teams as well.
Well with the Lee, Halladay deal, the Lee owner is claiming he should receive Halladay because some places are saying it was a four team deal. Technically the Phils/Seattle trade had nothing to do with the Phils/Jays deal, since no one went to Toronto from Seattle. I think it's obvious that the Phils made two seperate deal, thus making Lee and Halladay free agents in both our leagues. The owners of Halladay and Lee want to receive the other pitcher. What is your opinion? Was this a four team deal or three seperate deals which means no teams receive any players?
Well with the Lee, Halladay deal, the Lee owner is claiming he should receive Halladay because some places are saying it was a four team deal. Technically the Phils/Seattle trade had nothing to do with the Phils/Jays deal, since no one went to Toronto from Seattle. I think it's obvious that the Phils made two seperate deal, thus making Lee and Halladay free agents in both our leagues. The owners of Halladay and Lee want to receive the other pitcher. What is your opinion? Was this a four team deal or three seperate deals which means no teams receive any players?
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