ignatiusjreilly
Footballguy
The idea -- and I have no idea if this is true, just Barnwell's speculation -- is that Staley knew he was going to have to stop the Raiders on third down. He called the TO for whatever reason he did, presumably because he didn't like the formation they had. But he called it at 38 seconds so that, if the Raiders didn't convert there and were out of FG range, they would just be able to run out the clock.Maybe I misunderstood the point being made in the quote "Chargers waited until there was :38 on the clock to take a timeout, deliberately. Now the clock runs out if the Raiders don't score or go out of bounds." No, Raiders could let it run to :02, call timeout, and kick a FG. As they did. Also, what does deliberate calling of a timeout at :38 change? If they don't call timeout, all of that stuff in the quote is still true - except Raiders can still call a timeout, since they had 2. If I'm misunderstanding the quote, I'd love to better understand.
In other words, he wanted to call the TO but he waited until it wouldn't have any impact on the outcome of the game