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Help Settle Waiver Dispute (1 Viewer)

Who gets the #3 waiver spot?

  • The guy who picked 12th with the extra 5th pick

    Votes: 19 21.8%
  • The guy who originally had the 12th spot

    Votes: 68 78.2%

  • Total voters
    87

Warehouse Nasty

Footballguy
Our league does initial waiver order in reverse of draft order. So, the guy who got the 14th/last pick gets #1 waiver spot. The guy who had pick #1 traded with pick #12 in exchange for pick 12's 5th round pick. So, they effectively traded draft spots and the original pick #1 owner got an extra 5th round pick. In this scenario, who gets the 3rd wavier wire spot?

 
Not even a question. The guy who originally had the 12th spot gets the waiver priority of that spot. The guy at the #1 spot traded that pick for extra value, it's not like they just switched spots in the draft order altogether.

 
I would say the guy who traded for the 12th pick, given the sole method in determining waiver order was draft order. In your league, a way of compensating guys with lower draft picks is by giving them a higher waiver. Therefore, I think that waiver in question should be attached to the draft pick (unless previously discussed).

 
Whoever initially had the pick gets the waiver priority. They didn't swap positions throughout the entire draft or anything. The one that owned 12th initially had to pay extra assets to move up, so no reason for him to lose his waiver priority.

 
It should go by draft order. The person who drafted the 1st pick gets the last waiver priority, regardless of any trading. The person who drafted 12th gets the 3rd waiver priority. I don't understand the confusion.

Edit: It seems like I'm in the minority here and I'm pretty shocked. The point of doing the waiver priority by reverse draft order is to help out the owners who drafted later in the 1st round. Maybe that was part of his strategy of trading down to the 12th pick? He wanted a higher waiver priority because he knows every year there are a few undrafted studs that show up. Without explicitly stating in the trade that the owners would trade picks only and not everything that comes with it (waiver priority) then you have to assume that trading picks comes with everything associated with it.

 
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Does they trade *ALL* their picks for *ALL* the rounds, or just for the 1st round (and a 5th round pick)?

 
It should go by draft order. The person who drafted the 1st pick gets the last waiver priority, regardless of any trading. The person who drafted 12th gets the 3rd waiver priority. I don't understand the confusion.
So say you have the 1st overall pick and I have the 12th overall pick. I trade you my 2nd and 3rd rounders for your 1st rounder. Since I now have two first round picks, and you have zero, do I also get two picks in the waiver order, and you get zero?
 
Does they trade *ALL* their picks for *ALL* the rounds, or just for the 1st round (and a 5th round pick)?
#1 exchanged spots throughout the draft with #12. #12 gave #1 his 5th round draft pick as compensation.
In that case, given how the rule is worded, I think they also exchanged waiver priority.EDIT: You should probably edit the OP. From you initial post, it wasn't perfectly clear if they exchanged all their picks or just their 1st round pick, and it seems like most of the commentators took it to be the latter.
 
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Does they trade *ALL* their picks for *ALL* the rounds, or just for the 1st round (and a 5th round pick)?
#1 exchanged spots throughout the draft with #12. #12 gave #1 his 5th round draft pick as compensation.
In that case, given how the rule is worded, I think they also exchanged waiver priority.
That's absurd. The guy with the #1 pick got an extra 5th round pick out of it, he doesn't also get the better waiver wire position.
 
Does they trade *ALL* their picks for *ALL* the rounds, or just for the 1st round (and a 5th round pick)?
#1 exchanged spots throughout the draft with #12. #12 gave #1 his 5th round draft pick as compensation.
In that case, given how the rule is worded, I think they also exchanged waiver priority.
That's absurd. The guy with the #1 pick got an extra 5th round pick out of it, he doesn't also get the better waiver wire position.
It's very tricky to parse the intention of the rule. Consider this scenario: The guy with the 1st overall pick trades 5.01 to the guy with the 12th overall pick for something else (a 2013 pick, a box of donuts, whatever - the point being that the only pick changing hands in this draft is a 5th rounder). Would you do anything to change the waiver order in this situation?
 
Does they trade *ALL* their picks for *ALL* the rounds, or just for the 1st round (and a 5th round pick)?
#1 exchanged spots throughout the draft with #12. #12 gave #1 his 5th round draft pick as compensation.
In that case, given how the rule is worded, I think they also exchanged waiver priority.EDIT: You should probably edit the OP. From you initial post, it wasn't perfectly clear if they exchanged all their picks or just their 1st round pick, and it seems like most of the commentators took it to be the latter.
How can I be more clear than "So, they effectively traded draft spots and the original pick #1 owner got an extra 5th round pick."I think most people are reading this correctly from a comprehension standpoint. They just disagree with your logic.
 
Does they trade *ALL* their picks for *ALL* the rounds, or just for the 1st round (and a 5th round pick)?
#1 exchanged spots throughout the draft with #12. #12 gave #1 his 5th round draft pick as compensation.
In that case, given how the rule is worded, I think they also exchanged waiver priority.
That's absurd. The guy with the #1 pick got an extra 5th round pick out of it, he doesn't also get the better waiver wire position.
Why? You could equally say the other guy gained #1 pick, so he shouldn't also get better waiver wire position.Since the rule only says "waivers go in reverse of draft order", you have to try to figure out what "draft order" means. In this case, I'd say the simplest and fairest interpretation is that "draft order" means the position that the teams made most of their picks in. Team A traded a pick in the draft to exchange overall "draft order" position with Team B. And since waiver wire priority is determined by draft order, Team A also gave its original waiver wire priority position to Team B as part of the trade.
 
EDIT: You should probably edit the OP. From you initial post, it wasn't perfectly clear if they exchanged all their picks or just their 1st round pick, and it seems like most of the commentators took it to be the latter.
How can I be more clear than "So, they effectively traded draft spots and the original pick #1 owner got an extra 5th round pick."I think most people are reading this correctly from a comprehension standpoint. They just disagree with your logic.
Um, not really:
Not even a question. The guy who originally had the 12th spot gets the waiver priority of that spot. The guy at the #1 spot traded that pick for extra value, it's not like they just switched spots in the draft order altogether.
Whoever initially had the pick gets the waiver priority. They didn't swap positions throughout the entire draft or anything. The one that owned 12th initially had to pay extra assets to move up, so no reason for him to lose his waiver priority.
 
EDIT: You should probably edit the OP. From you initial post, it wasn't perfectly clear if they exchanged all their picks or just their 1st round pick, and it seems like most of the commentators took it to be the latter.
How can I be more clear than "So, they effectively traded draft spots and the original pick #1 owner got an extra 5th round pick."I think most people are reading this correctly from a comprehension standpoint. They just disagree with your logic.
Um, not really:
Not even a question. The guy who originally had the 12th spot gets the waiver priority of that spot. The guy at the #1 spot traded that pick for extra value, it's not like they just switched spots in the draft order altogether.
Whoever initially had the pick gets the waiver priority. They didn't swap positions throughout the entire draft or anything. The one that owned 12th initially had to pay extra assets to move up, so no reason for him to lose his waiver priority.
And yet both of those people agree with your position. It's reasonable to assume that they would have come to the opposite conclusion if they'd realized that the OP meant that they swapped all of their draft picks, so it's funny that you quoted them. Usually these commissioner threads sound complicated but are actually pretty simple. This one is the opposite, I think. When you really think about it, there isn't a satisfying solution, though at the moment if I had to rule I'd say you're wrong. the guy getting the 12th overall pick should get the waiver priority that comes with it. But like I said, I could make a pretty strong argument either way, which is why it's tricky.

ETA: I think I got my posters mixed up. Hard to keep track of who's arguing for what here. Apologies if I had you on the wrong side of the debate. :)

 
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Think about it in NFL terms. If the Indianapolis Colts (1st pick) swapped all of their picks in the 2012 draft to the New York Giants (32nd pick), along with a 2nd rounder thrown in, would the Giants then gain the #1 waiver wire spot? The answer is no.

The waiver wire is based on the initial draft order. What the owners decided to swap following that draft order being set is irrelevant, because waiver spots aren't eligible to be traded (at least in any league I'm in, and I'm fairly positive your league doesn't have that in the rules).

Seems pretty cut and dry to me.

 
And yet both of those people agree with your position. It's reasonable to assume that they would have come to the opposite conclusion if they'd realized that the OP meant that they swapped all of their draft picks, so it's funny that you quoted them.

Usually these commissioner threads sound complicated but are actually pretty simple. This one is the opposite, I think. When you really think about it, there isn't a satisfying solution, though at the moment if I had to rule I'd say you're wrong. the guy getting the 12th overall pick should get the waiver priority that comes with it. But like I said, I could make a pretty strong argument either way, which is why it's tricky.

ETA: I think I got my posters mixed up. Hard to keep track of who's arguing for what here. Apologies if I had you on the wrong side of the debate. :)
No problem. I hadn't even looked at what side those guys were on. I just quoted them to show the OP that his post was ambiguous and/or being mis-interpreted. Like you say, this one's tricky. If I had to settle it, I'd follow the logic I laid out above. But I can see good arguments for the other side too.

 
Thanks to all for voting. Although I could have worded it a bit clearer, we have a clear winner here. FWIW, I agree with the poll results. Generally speaking, I agree with the simple argument made by solocra above.

Appreciate all the responses.

 
This is pretty tricky and not really clear cut one way or the other.

First I would say that, like Quibbler said, the OP isn't clear that they traded their entire draft position to each other. I also thought it was just the first round picks with 5th rounder thrown in to compensate.

I do feel that it makes the most sense for the waiver order to be set based on the original draft order, unless waiver position was mentioned in the trade details and that is something that can be traded within the rules of your league. This isn't clearly stated in your rule so it is somewhat of a gray area. My logic is that picks could be traded all over the place. An owner may swap picks with a bunch of different owners and never select in their original spot. No one owner would be selecting in their original spot. How do you determine waiver order then?

 
It should go by draft order. The person who drafted the 1st pick gets the last waiver priority, regardless of any trading. The person who drafted 12th gets the 3rd waiver priority. I don't understand the confusion.

Edit: It seems like I'm in the minority here and I'm pretty shocked. The point of doing the waiver priority by reverse draft order is to help out the owners who drafted later in the 1st round. Maybe that was part of his strategy of trading down to the 12th pick? He wanted a higher waiver priority because he knows every year there are a few undrafted studs that show up. Without explicitly stating in the trade that the owners would trade picks only and not everything that comes with it (waiver priority) then you have to assume that trading picks comes with everything associated with it.
No, the point of doing waiver priority this way is to help the owner whose draft spot meant he had an overall worse group of picks to start with.If the owner with pick #1 made a fair trade, he still has a more valuable set of picks after the trade is done. If he doesn't, well that's his fault and it doesn't really change matters for the waiver priority. He had the better fortune to start with, he blew it on his own.

Look at it another way. The NFL gives preseason waiver priority based on which team is worst, which corresponds with draft order. When Washington traded up to get the #2 pick, do you think that St Louis's second overall waiver priority was somehow traded with it?

Of course it wasn't. Nor should we expect it would in fantasy.

 
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Giving it a little more thought, I've changed my mind and I do think the owners should keep their original waiver priority. I think I can make a stronger argument for that side, and if for no other reason, ruling that way keeps it simple and avoids the complications that would arise with other trades. When would waiver order move with picks and when wouldn't it?

 
I'm baffled how this is even a topic.

Someone trading enough picks we can say they "effectively" swapped draft spots that is not the same thing as "actually" swapping draft spots. That's why the word "effectively" gets used, to indicate they didn't actually do it, they just did something with a somewhat similar result, but not really.

Again another NFL analogy. The Packers and Bears can "effectively" swap rosters by trading every player to the other team. Is that the same as "actually" swapping rosters? Heck no, both teams would have to deal with the cap hit for every player they traded. Because they didn't "actually" swap rosters, there's nothing in the rules that allow them to swap rosters. They might be able to approximate it, but in doing so they are subject to all limitations of trades.

There's really only 2 questions to ask. 1) does your league have rules that allow waiver priority to be traded? If the answer is yes, then you ask: 2) Did both owners specifically indicate in the trade that their waiver priority was being exchanged as part of the trade?

If the answer to either is no, then owner 12 retains his waiver priority. The owner of pick 1 can't try to impose a condition that the owner of pick 12 never agreed to in the trade, anymore than I can trade with you and after the fact say, "And he agreed to give me Adrian Peterson as well". You have to explicitly agree to all terms in a trade for it to be valid.

 
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No, the point of doing waiver priority this way is to help the owner whose draft spot meant he had an overall worse group of picks to start with.If the owner with pick #1 made a fair trade, he still has a more valuable set of picks after the trade is done.
:goodposting: This is the same idea I just had and it convinced me that the owners should keep their original waiver priorities. To rule otherwise would effectively be valuing the sides of the trade, which is not something a commissioner should do. We have to assume that the price of keeping the waiver priority is built into the fifth rounder that was exchanged; however, if the owner who traded down was under the impression that he'd be getting the better waiver priority as part of the deal, he may have misvalued this and has a somewhat legitimate gripe. There's little you can do about it now, though, except to write a better rule for next year.
 
My logic is that picks could be traded all over the place. An owner may swap picks with a bunch of different owners and never select in their original spot. No one owner would be selecting in their original spot. How do you determine waiver order then?
I know the OP's pretty much decided already, but I'll just add that this is a strong point. I'd been thinking about this case only, where I think it's reasonable to talk about the teams trading their position in the "draft order". But if teams trade individual picks all over the place, then there really isn't any clear "draft order" left post-trading.

That being the case, I think the league rule that "waivers go in reverse of draft order" should be interpreted as "waivers go in reverse of original draft order". That's the only time when "draft order" is guaranteed to be unambiguous, so that's what the rule should be read as referencing.

In case it wasn't clear, that means I changed my vote, so one less for switching waiver order.

 
Geeze. Why not just do waivers the normal way? The team with the overall worst record/points get's the first pick each week, and the best record/points gets the last.

Easy, fair, and comes with no headaches.

 
My logic is that picks could be traded all over the place. An owner may swap picks with a bunch of different owners and never select in their original spot. No one owner would be selecting in their original spot. How do you determine waiver order then?
I know the OP's pretty much decided already, but I'll just add that this is a strong point. I'd been thinking about this case only, where I think it's reasonable to talk about the teams trading their position in the "draft order". But if teams trade individual picks all over the place, then there really isn't any clear "draft order" left post-trading.

That being the case, I think the league rule that "waivers go in reverse of draft order" should be interpreted as "waivers go in reverse of original draft order". That's the only time when "draft order" is guaranteed to be unambiguous, so that's what the rule should be read as referencing.

In case it wasn't clear, that means I changed my vote, so one less for switching waiver order.
I think there are a lot of strong cases for retaining the original waiver order. This is one. This went how I expected it to go. Sorry for not making it a bit clearer but it was worked out and most see it the way I expected it to be seen.
 
My logic is that picks could be traded all over the place. An owner may swap picks with a bunch of different owners and never select in their original spot. No one owner would be selecting in their original spot. How do you determine waiver order then?
I know the OP's pretty much decided already, but I'll just add that this is a strong point. I'd been thinking about this case only, where I think it's reasonable to talk about the teams trading their position in the "draft order". But if teams trade individual picks all over the place, then there really isn't any clear "draft order" left post-trading.

That being the case, I think the league rule that "waivers go in reverse of draft order" should be interpreted as "waivers go in reverse of original draft order". That's the only time when "draft order" is guaranteed to be unambiguous, so that's what the rule should be read as referencing.

In case it wasn't clear, that means I changed my vote, so one less for switching waiver order.
I, too, got caught up in trying to interpret the "spirit" of the rules, which led me down the road to thinking the waiver prioirities should be swapped. But in reality it would be totally ambiguous how and when to swap waiver priorities whenever a trade involving draft picks occurred. I'm not usually a fan of slippery-slope arguments but in this case there would really be no way to rule in favor of swapping the waivers and then generalize that into a useful rule that could apply to all situations.
There's really only 2 questions to ask. 1) does your league have rules that allow waiver priority to be traded? If the answer is yes, then you ask: 2) Did both owners specifically indicate in the trade that their waiver priority was being exchanged as part of the trade?

If the answer to either is no, then owner 12 retains his waiver priority.
I also think this is an excellent point. I got caught up in thinking that because the rule was ambiguously worded, then either interpretation was equally valid, but I think Greg's interpretation is more reasonable than the alternative.
 
This is pretty simple actually....

The DRAFT ORDER didn't change. Two picks did. This is evidenced by the Draft order staying the same through the rest of the draft (ie the majority of the picks).

He traded PICKS, not the full "draft order".

Guy who held the slot originally still holds the waiver priority unless the waiver priority was clearly included in the trade arrangement.

 
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I'm baffled how this is even a topic.

Someone trading enough picks we can say they "effectively" swapped draft spots that is not the same thing as "actually" swapping draft spots. That's why the word "effectively" gets used, to indicate they didn't actually do it, they just did something with a somewhat similar result, but not really.

Again another NFL analogy. The Packers and Bears can "effectively" swap rosters by trading every player to the other team. Is that the same as "actually" swapping rosters? Heck no, both teams would have to deal with the cap hit for every player they traded. Because they didn't "actually" swap rosters, there's nothing in the rules that allow them to swap rosters. They might be able to approximate it, but in doing so they are subject to all limitations of trades.

There's really only 2 questions to ask. 1) does your league have rules that allow waiver priority to be traded? If the answer is yes, then you ask: 2) Did both owners specifically indicate in the trade that their waiver priority was being exchanged as part of the trade?

If the answer to either is no, then owner 12 retains his waiver priority. The owner of pick 1 can't try to impose a condition that the owner of pick 12 never agreed to in the trade, anymore than I can trade with you and after the fact say, "And he agreed to give me Adrian Peterson as well". You have to explicitly agree to all terms in a trade for it to be valid.
This is all the explanation needed. I don't understand the confusion.
 
Our league does initial waiver order in reverse of draft order. So, the guy who got the 14th/last pick gets #1 waiver spot. The guy who had pick #1 traded with pick #12 in exchange for pick 12's 5th round pick. So, they effectively traded draft spots and the original pick #1 owner got an extra 5th round pick. In this scenario, who gets the 3rd wavier wire spot?
This is tricky. I would think that the draft order was determined before the trade happened. Otherwise, there could not have been a trade of draft order. Unless the waiver position was explicitly specified as part of the deal, all that was traded were the picks. This seems to me to be an extension of any other trade - if I trade someone round 1 picks, it doesn't mean we're also trading round 2 picks unless we specify that. Thus, if we trade a series of picks, we're not also trading waiver order unless it is specified.That being said, because of the ambiguity of the rules, I think a reasonable case could be made for both sides. One could argue that there is a difference between "the owner who is alotted the 12th pick in the draft" (i.e., this is determined before the trade)and "the owner who drafts the 12th pick" (i.e., this would suggest the actual drafting owner)and"the owner with the 12th pick" (which could be either)The tiebreaker to me is what would have happened if they had just traded round 1 picks? My guess is that the guy who gave up an extra pick for the #1 pick would still get the waiver slot, but whichever way you rule on that question would give you the spirit of the rule, I think. Good luck!
 
Not even a question. The guy who originally had the 12th spot gets the waiver priority of that spot. The guy at the #1 spot traded that pick for extra value, it's not like they just switched spots in the draft order altogether.
I agree. they traded draft picks. not waiver wire positions.in most leagues, Those are untradeable even if the draft pick moves, the waiver wire order should remain the same.
 
Geeze. Why not just do waivers the normal way? The team with the overall worst record/points get's the first pick each week, and the best record/points gets the last.Easy, fair, and comes with no headaches.
I always thought the waiver order wasn't really determined until after week 1 results anyway. Teams are 'racked and stacked' based upon W-L, then least pts scored, etc. Another topic for another thread I guess :unsure:
 
The OP is as poorly worded as the laegue rules.

You can ignore the poll results - it's pretty obvious most responders did not realize the two owners traded draft positions for the duration. If they had only traded 1st round picks the answer is 180 out.

 
Geeze. Why not just do waivers the normal way? The team with the overall worst record/points get's the first pick each week, and the best record/points gets the last.Easy, fair, and comes with no headaches.
I always thought the waiver order wasn't really determined until after week 1 results anyway. Teams are 'racked and stacked' based upon W-L, then least pts scored, etc. Another topic for another thread I guess :unsure:
If you have waivers before week 1, then you can't use week 1 results since they haven't happened yet. So people use something like draft order, or previous season worst to first.
 
Geeze. Why not just do waivers the normal way? The team with the overall worst record/points get's the first pick each week, and the best record/points gets the last.Easy, fair, and comes with no headaches.
I always thought the waiver order wasn't really determined until after week 1 results anyway. Teams are 'racked and stacked' based upon W-L, then least pts scored, etc. Another topic for another thread I guess :unsure:
If you have waivers before week 1, then you can't use week 1 results since they haven't happened yet. So people use something like draft order, or previous season worst to first.
ah yes, sorry...I've always used first come first serve prior to season starting.
 
'[icon] said:
This is pretty simple actually....The DRAFT ORDER didn't change. Two picks did. This is evidenced by the Draft order staying the same through the rest of the draft (ie the majority of the picks). He traded PICKS, not the full "draft order". Guy who held the slot originally still holds the waiver priority unless the waiver priority was clearly included in the trade arrangement.
Would your answer change if it was 30 or 40 picks were traded?This was NOT a one pick for one pick trade a 5th round pick as a sweetner. It WAS two draft slots exchanged for the ENTIRE draft.Amazing how few people read and comprehend before responding. The poll is completely invalid because of the poorly explained OP.
 
'CokeZero said:
'Greg Russell said:
'CokeZero said:
'PatsFanCT said:
Geeze. Why not just do waivers the normal way? The team with the overall worst record/points get's the first pick each week, and the best record/points gets the last.Easy, fair, and comes with no headaches.
I always thought the waiver order wasn't really determined until after week 1 results anyway. Teams are 'racked and stacked' based upon W-L, then least pts scored, etc. Another topic for another thread I guess :unsure:
If you have waivers before week 1, then you can't use week 1 results since they haven't happened yet. So people use something like draft order, or previous season worst to first.
ah yes, sorry...I've always used first come first serve prior to season starting.
Same here. Why should anyone get special treatment when the draft itself is fair?
 
Not even a question. The guy who originally had the 12th spot gets the waiver priority of that spot. The guy at the #1 spot traded that pick for extra value, it's not like they just switched spots in the draft order altogether.
This. And I can't believe 15 people voted the other way. Wow.
 
Not even a question. The guy who originally had the 12th spot gets the waiver priority of that spot. The guy at the #1 spot traded that pick for extra value, it's not like they just switched spots in the draft order altogether.
This. And I can't believe 15 people voted the other way. Wow.
I voted that way as I read it as they did trade draft spots. Don't really care either way but it seems to me if you trade draft spots with someone and don't specify what happens with the waiver priority that it should go with the guy who ended up drafting in the draft slot. Though I can see both sides of the arguement...the two people involved should've laid that out when they did the trade.
 
'[icon] said:
This is pretty simple actually....The DRAFT ORDER didn't change. Two picks did. This is evidenced by the Draft order staying the same through the rest of the draft (ie the majority of the picks). He traded PICKS, not the full "draft order". Guy who held the slot originally still holds the waiver priority unless the waiver priority was clearly included in the trade arrangement.
Would your answer change if it was 30 or 40 picks were traded?This was NOT a one pick for one pick trade a 5th round pick as a sweetner. It WAS two draft slots exchanged for the ENTIRE draft.Amazing how few people read and comprehend before responding. The poll is completely invalid because of the poorly explained OP.
:goodposting: This thread is funny. There is no "effectively" about it as the two people did trade draft slots for the entire draft. So they actually traded draft slots and the person who had the 1st pick received a 5th as compensation to do so.
 
This is not complicated. The waiver spot is an asset just like the picks are. Unless the players also made an agreement to swap waiver spots, the waiver order remains unchanged.

Think of it this way: If they had drafted in their appropriate spots and just traded players afterwards, would they also have to swap waiver spots? Of course not, that would be ridiculous.

 
'[icon] said:
This is pretty simple actually....

The DRAFT ORDER didn't change. Two picks did. This is evidenced by the Draft order staying the same through the rest of the draft (ie the majority of the picks).

He traded PICKS, not the full "draft order".

Guy who held the slot originally still holds the waiver priority unless the waiver priority was clearly included in the trade arrangement.
Would your answer change if it was 30 or 40 picks were traded?This was NOT a one pick for one pick trade a 5th round pick as a sweetner. It WAS two draft slots exchanged for the ENTIRE draft.

Amazing how few people read and comprehend before responding. The poll is completely invalid because of the poorly explained OP.
:goodposting: This thread is funny. There is no "effectively" about it as the two people did trade draft slots for the entire draft. So they actually traded draft slots and the person who had the 1st pick received a 5th as compensation to do so.
But that 5th round compensatory pick is exactly why it's "effectively" and not "actually". Look at it this way: we assume that drafting out of the 12 hole is worse than drafting out of the 1 hole - that's why the guy with the 12th pick gets the earlier waiver priority, to make up for this difference. Say drafting #1 overall has a "value" of 100, and drafting #12 overall has a "value" of 80. Getting the first waiver pick is how you make up that missing 20 points of "value."

If they actually swapped their entire slots for the whole draft, then the guy moving down from 1 to 12 would be getting screwed, because he'd be giving up a more valuable draft spot for a less valuable draft spot. He'd be giving up something worth 100 and getting back something worth 80. If that was the case, then they should switch waiver priorities as well, in order to equal out the trade.

But they didn't actually swap their entire slots for the whole draft. The guy who originally had the #1 spot traded down to #12 and got an extra pick out of the deal. So he gave up something worth 100, and got back something worth 80 plus the value of the 5th round pick. Presumably the value of that pick is 20 - if we assume that it's an efficient market and that an owner wouldn't willingly give up something of more value for something of lesser value, the guy gave up something worth 100 and got something worth 100 back.

Similarly, the guy moving up to #1 is giving up something worth 80 to get something worth 100 - so in order to make the deal, he also had to throw in the extra 5th round pick (worth 20) to make the deal even. The end result is that he gave up something worth 100 and got something worth 100 back.

So they're both in the same boat as they were before the deal. They each have the same "value" after the trade as they did before the trade. There's no reason to subsequently take the waiver priority away from one owner and give it to the other. They're already squared away with each other. To then switch waiver priorities would be literally robbing the guy who moved up from 12 to 1 - he effectively "paid" to keep that waiver prioritiy by giving up his 5th round pick.

 
But that 5th round compensatory pick is exactly why it's "effectively" and not "actually".

Look at it this way: we assume that drafting out of the 12 hole is worse than drafting out of the 1 hole - that's why the guy with the 12th pick gets the earlier waiver priority, to make up for this difference. Say drafting #1 overall has a "value" of 100, and drafting #12 overall has a "value" of 80. Getting the first waiver pick is how you make up that missing 20 points of "value."

If they actually swapped their entire slots for the whole draft, then the guy moving down from 1 to 12 would be getting screwed, because he'd be giving up a more valuable draft spot for a less valuable draft spot. He'd be giving up something worth 100 and getting back something worth 80. If that was the case, then they should switch waiver priorities as well, in order to equal out the trade.

But they didn't actually swap their entire slots for the whole draft. The guy who originally had the #1 spot traded down to #12 and got an extra pick out of the deal. So he gave up something worth 100, and got back something worth 80 plus the value of the 5th round pick. Presumably the value of that pick is 20 - if we assume that it's an efficient market and that an owner wouldn't willingly give up something of more value for something of lesser value, the guy gave up something worth 100 and got something worth 100 back.

Similarly, the guy moving up to #1 is giving up something worth 80 to get something worth 100 - so in order to make the deal, he also had to throw in the extra 5th round pick (worth 20) to make the deal even. The end result is that he gave up something worth 100 and got something worth 100 back.

So they're both in the same boat as they were before the deal. They each have the same "value" after the trade as they did before the trade. There's no reason to subsequently take the waiver priority away from one owner and give it to the other. They're already squared away with each other. To then switch waiver priorities would be literally robbing the guy who moved up from 12 to 1 - he effectively "paid" to keep that waiver prioritiy by giving up his 5th round pick.
:goodposting: They didn't agree to swap draft slots. They agreed to trade a 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th, etc for a 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 6th, 7th, etc.

The reverse waiver priority is meant to give some extra value to the people in allegedly worse draft spots. The guy moving down there is already being covered for that with the extra 5th round pick.

 

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