TobiasFunke
Footballguy
No, because judicial deference to the will of a legislature in statutory interpretation is completely different from judicial deference to the will of the legislature in the face of a Constitutional challenge. No matter how you feel about either decision, the distinction between the two should be obvious to anyone who has even a passing familiarity with our laws and our government. Conflating them requires a total absence of reason.Why? Reason and Root have argued for less deference to legislative majorities all along. It fits in both cases.
Is it because it's a biased source?
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