I don't think the verse is Jesus talking at all, so most of your response doesn't make sense to me.  the point is not that Jesus is talking, the point is that David makes statements that foreshadow the future.
I almost cut in the whole chapter also.  But since you're serious.  "worm" references Job 25:4.  Job suffered and defined the term "worm" for us. A worm is less than a man, and it descirbes how Christ was treated before he died on the cross.  He was an outcast.  The first part of psalm 22 is about suffering. David is the author.  He asks a question, where is God during our suffering? Christ asks the question. We all ask the question.  Great poetry, I agree.  But there is so much more here than poetry.  Poetry lasts this long for a reason.  It foreshadows rather than just mirror truth.
The second part of the Psalm is praise to God from David for his faithfulness. David will praise God out in the open, and it may be foreshadowing Christ doing the same. David further says that this praise will come from others in the future as well.   We will all see that God has kept his word.  He has not foresaken us. He did what he said he would do - which is send a Messiah. (Some of us see it. Maybe you don't yet).  The last part is probably still in the future, when all of the earth praises the Lord.
		
		
	 
So Jesus didn't really utter the words "My God My God" then?  Then why do the NT writers claim Jesus did say it?Maybe all this is symbolic, as you say.  Then what value is there in the Jesus passion narrative, if the scene didn't really take place?
You talk of translations.  Given time and effort, the same thing could be said about Muhammad.  But I don't want to go there.
The person in the poem is describing himself as a worm and not a man.  The person in the poem is also described to be Jesus, according the the NT writers.  Jesus was not a worm or less than man... not in God's eyes, he was seen as his son.
King David in the poem is considering himself a worm in the eyes of God, and is asking for help.
		
 
		
	 
Jayrok... you are smarter than this...Do you really need Jesus to say "My God, My God why have you forsaken me?"??
If he said it, GREAT!! If he didn't, its still fine... no biggie, the people writing it "stylized" thier stories, kinda like David stylized his poetry, and all of that...
does that phrase really change what Jesus did?
and, I want you to think about this and I'm not totally sure if I think its true, but don't modern Jews have a stake in claiming that waht Jesus did is not what the Messiah is suppose to do? I'm saying that reading a Jewish view on Messianic prophecies that states that Jesus could not be the Messiah is probably biased since they don't believe Jesus is the Messiah... does that make sense? I mean, if I were a Jew I'd be saying Jesus weren't the Messiah, too, and I'm sure I could find OT scriptures to use in ways that would agree with that claim, too, but I would be looking for them and trying to make things fit and things liket hat...