Henry Ford
Footballguy
I'm trying to imagine how you rationalize putting yourself in a position to lose your license to practice law over $26,000.00
A working lawyer and a fugitive. I like his drive screams partner material.Henry Ford said:I'm trying to imagine how you rationalize putting yourself in a position to lose your license to practice law over $26,000.00
Did you read the part about the gambling addiction?Henry Ford said:I'm trying to imagine how you rationalize putting yourself in a position to lose your license to practice law over $26,000.00
A well-written promissory note will have language stating both that (1) no notice is required that the late charges are being assessed, and (2) failure to enforce a breach, etc. will not act as a waiver of the breach or of any remedy associated with it. I'm hoping your note was well crafted.Lawyer question for you guys...not sure if this falls under contract law or what...
Short back-story: My father made several personal loans. Contracts were signed, all documents are up to snuff...My father is unable to handle his business affairs for a while, so I am managing, have full POA, etc.
Terms of the note are as follows:
- 2-year term
-Interest only payments due on the 14th of each month
-5% penalty can be added to the monthly payment if payment is beyond 5 days past-due.
One of the loans is very delinquent. She's currently 6 months past due (owes March-Aug). Up until now, we had not charged her the late penalty on anything...I received Feb-March over the course of 3 months, and didn't levy the penalty. I sent her an e-mail 2 months ago requesting that she get current or I would levy the penalty on all past-due payments, and start holding firm on charging it on all future late payments. No response to that e-mail. I gave her a deadline of August 14th to get current. No response, no payment.
I'm now adding late payments to her outstanding balance. I have yet to hear anything from her via e-mail. I have confirmed via her CPA that she has received the e-mails.
Legally, thinking forward to a possible situation where we hit August 16th's loan maturity date, when she owes principal + past due payments + late fees, and her not having the money to pay, a possible gap I see is that she can simply deny knowing I had reached out to her.
-The loan contract specifies the late penalty can be applied once any payment is 5 days late. She's clearly in breach of that as per the contract, much less me telling her.
Do I have any obligation to ensure she is aware that the late penalties are now being assessed? Or does the contract language, which clearly outlines that, serve as sufficient enough grounds even though we had not levied it until now? If I need to send her a certified letter letting her know, I will, but if I don't have to, then I won't.
Thoughts?
No idea on any of the above; just posting as I realized today that a college/law school friend of mine is Associate Dean of Career Services at your law school. Don't know if you would have interacted with her, but she's a fantastic person.Ok current attorneys: My office works against the same opponent for every single case, in different types of cases generally within a few categories. We are repeat opponents, I suppose you could say. I have a question for you, because I want to know if this is a wider part of law or just the other party. Does the below sort of gamesmanship and (IMO) crap happen often?
All summer I have been prepping for a hearing. My supervising attorneys have traveled multiple places around the country to interview witnesses, prepare for the hearing, build a case timeline, etc. The date got set with the other party a while ago.
Now, right as we are about to go to the hearing, it is moved back because the other attorney could no longer be available on the dates set BECAUSE HE "HAD" TO GO ON VACATION those dates. Remind you, this is the guy we set the ####### date with in the first place. How the hell is that allowed? Like, dude, you helped set the date...take your vacation the next ####### week!!!
Also, I've worked on a number of cases that are flat out ridiculous. As in, there's a line of precedent directly on point with very clear standards (way more clear than anything I read in school) and the other side very clearly has no case at all. How often does this kind of crap happen where people are just filing something because they can, and because it's cheaper to settle than to go swat them away? It's insane.
PM sent. If I have the right person, she is indeed fantastic.No idea on any of the above; just posting as I realized today that a college/law school friend of mine is Associate Dean of Career Services at your law school. Don't know if you would have interacted with her, but she's a fantastic person.
Par for the courseOk current attorneys: My office works against the same opponent for every single case, in different types of cases generally within a few categories. We are repeat opponents, I suppose you could say. I have a question for you, because I want to know if this is a wider part of law or just the other party. Does the below sort of gamesmanship and (IMO) crap happen often?
All summer I have been prepping for a hearing. My supervising attorneys have traveled multiple places around the country to interview witnesses, prepare for the hearing, build a case timeline, etc. The date got set with the other party a while ago.
Now, right as we are about to go to the hearing, it is moved back because the other attorney could no longer be available on the dates set BECAUSE HE "HAD" TO GO ON VACATION those dates. Remind you, this is the guy we set the ####### date with in the first place. How the hell is that allowed? Like, dude, you helped set the date...take your vacation the next ####### week!!!
Also, I've worked on a number of cases that are flat out ridiculous. As in, there's a line of precedent directly on point with very clear standards (way more clear than anything I read in school) and the other side very clearly has no case at all. How often does this kind of crap happen where people are just filing something because they can, and because it's cheaper to settle than to go swat them away? It's insane.
Does note that no notice is required that the charges are being assessed, and says re. the late payment and subsequent note call provision, "failure to exercise this option shall not constitute a waiver of the right to exercise this option in the event of any subsequent default or defaults." I'm assuming this basically means that just because we didn't start charging the penalty from day 1 doesn't mean we can't start charging it now.A well-written promissory note will have language stating both that (1) no notice is required that the late charges are being assessed, and (2) failure to enforce a breach, etc. will not act as a waiver of the breach or of any remedy associated with it. I'm hoping your note was well crafted.Lawyer question for you guys...not sure if this falls under contract law or what...
Short back-story: My father made several personal loans. Contracts were signed, all documents are up to snuff...My father is unable to handle his business affairs for a while, so I am managing, have full POA, etc.
Terms of the note are as follows:
- 2-year term
-Interest only payments due on the 14th of each month
-5% penalty can be added to the monthly payment if payment is beyond 5 days past-due.
One of the loans is very delinquent. She's currently 6 months past due (owes March-Aug). Up until now, we had not charged her the late penalty on anything...I received Feb-March over the course of 3 months, and didn't levy the penalty. I sent her an e-mail 2 months ago requesting that she get current or I would levy the penalty on all past-due payments, and start holding firm on charging it on all future late payments. No response to that e-mail. I gave her a deadline of August 14th to get current. No response, no payment.
I'm now adding late payments to her outstanding balance. I have yet to hear anything from her via e-mail. I have confirmed via her CPA that she has received the e-mails.
Legally, thinking forward to a possible situation where we hit August 16th's loan maturity date, when she owes principal + past due payments + late fees, and her not having the money to pay, a possible gap I see is that she can simply deny knowing I had reached out to her.
-The loan contract specifies the late penalty can be applied once any payment is 5 days late. She's clearly in breach of that as per the contract, much less me telling her.
Do I have any obligation to ensure she is aware that the late penalties are now being assessed? Or does the contract language, which clearly outlines that, serve as sufficient enough grounds even though we had not levied it until now? If I need to send her a certified letter letting her know, I will, but if I don't have to, then I won't.
Thoughts?
Even if it was not, that doesn't mean you're out of luck. The note should also have a provision indicating how notices should be served--i.e., by email, fax (believe it or not), certified mail, overnight mail, etc. What does that provision say?
Bolded #1: You're going to blow a ####### gasket if you get worked up about this. It happens constantly.Ok current attorneys: My office works against the same opponent for every single case, in different types of cases generally within a few categories. We are repeat opponents, I suppose you could say. I have a question for you, because I want to know if this is a wider part of law or just the other party. Does the below sort of gamesmanship and (IMO) crap happen often?
All summer I have been prepping for a hearing. My supervising attorneys have traveled multiple places around the country to interview witnesses, prepare for the hearing, build a case timeline, etc. The date got set with the other party a while ago.
Now, right as we are about to go to the hearing, it is moved back because the other attorney could no longer be available on the dates set BECAUSE HE "HAD" TO GO ON VACATION those dates. Remind you, this is the guy we set the ####### date with in the first place. How the hell is that allowed? Like, dude, you helped set the date...take your vacation the next ####### week!!!
Also, I've worked on a number of cases that are flat out ridiculous. As in, there's a line of precedent directly on point with very clear standards (way more clear than anything I read in school) and the other side very clearly has no case at all. How often does this kind of crap happen where people are just filing something because they can, and because it's cheaper to settle than to go swat them away? It's insane.
The homestead exemption refers to the fact that in some states a debtor can't be forced to sell his/her house to cover an unpaid debt. I'm assuming this debt was unsecured so am not sure why that's in there, and I don't know if this is a proper waiver (might need, for instance, spousal consent). For your purposes, just ignore it.Does note that no notice is required that the charges are being assessed, and says re. the late payment and subsequent note call provision, "failure to exercise this option shall not constitute a waiver of the right to exercise this option in the event of any subsequent default or defaults." I'm assuming this basically means that just because we didn't start charging the penalty from day 1 doesn't mean we can't start charging it now.A well-written promissory note will have language stating both that (1) no notice is required that the late charges are being assessed, and (2) failure to enforce a breach, etc. will not act as a waiver of the breach or of any remedy associated with it. I'm hoping your note was well crafted.Lawyer question for you guys...not sure if this falls under contract law or what...
Short back-story: My father made several personal loans. Contracts were signed, all documents are up to snuff...My father is unable to handle his business affairs for a while, so I am managing, have full POA, etc.
Terms of the note are as follows:
- 2-year term
-Interest only payments due on the 14th of each month
-5% penalty can be added to the monthly payment if payment is beyond 5 days past-due.
One of the loans is very delinquent. She's currently 6 months past due (owes March-Aug). Up until now, we had not charged her the late penalty on anything...I received Feb-March over the course of 3 months, and didn't levy the penalty. I sent her an e-mail 2 months ago requesting that she get current or I would levy the penalty on all past-due payments, and start holding firm on charging it on all future late payments. No response to that e-mail. I gave her a deadline of August 14th to get current. No response, no payment.
I'm now adding late payments to her outstanding balance. I have yet to hear anything from her via e-mail. I have confirmed via her CPA that she has received the e-mails.
Legally, thinking forward to a possible situation where we hit August 16th's loan maturity date, when she owes principal + past due payments + late fees, and her not having the money to pay, a possible gap I see is that she can simply deny knowing I had reached out to her.
-The loan contract specifies the late penalty can be applied once any payment is 5 days late. She's clearly in breach of that as per the contract, much less me telling her.
Do I have any obligation to ensure she is aware that the late penalties are now being assessed? Or does the contract language, which clearly outlines that, serve as sufficient enough grounds even though we had not levied it until now? If I need to send her a certified letter letting her know, I will, but if I don't have to, then I won't.
Thoughts?
Even if it was not, that doesn't mean you're out of luck. The note should also have a provision indicating how notices should be served--i.e., by email, fax (believe it or not), certified mail, overnight mail, etc. What does that provision say?
There is no mention of how notices should be served...there's honestly no mention of notices in general.
There is a line that I'm confused on. It says "The undersigned hereby waives presentment, demand of payment, notice and protest thereof of this note, and also hereby waives the benefit of my homestead exemption as to this debt, and agree to pay all costs of collection, including reasonable attorney's fees, in case payment is not made in accordance with the provision of this note."
What does the homestead exemption part mean?
[Also, thanks for the input, and sorry again re. the Cat thread...the rant wasn't directed at you specificaly. It just really hit a nerve when people were telling me I didn't care about my pets, especially after I lost my Moose a month or so ago...]
Generally speaking, it's rarely a bad idea just to send a notice of default and reservation of rights letter via certified mail. Then the other party will have a tougher time arguing you had some sort of oral understanding or agreement contrary to the terms of the loan documents.Does note that no notice is required that the charges are being assessed, and says re. the late payment and subsequent note call provision, "failure to exercise this option shall not constitute a waiver of the right to exercise this option in the event of any subsequent default or defaults." I'm assuming this basically means that just because we didn't start charging the penalty from day 1 doesn't mean we can't start charging it now.A well-written promissory note will have language stating both that (1) no notice is required that the late charges are being assessed, and (2) failure to enforce a breach, etc. will not act as a waiver of the breach or of any remedy associated with it. I'm hoping your note was well crafted.Lawyer question for you guys...not sure if this falls under contract law or what...
Short back-story: My father made several personal loans. Contracts were signed, all documents are up to snuff...My father is unable to handle his business affairs for a while, so I am managing, have full POA, etc.
Terms of the note are as follows:
- 2-year term
-Interest only payments due on the 14th of each month
-5% penalty can be added to the monthly payment if payment is beyond 5 days past-due.
One of the loans is very delinquent. She's currently 6 months past due (owes March-Aug). Up until now, we had not charged her the late penalty on anything...I received Feb-March over the course of 3 months, and didn't levy the penalty. I sent her an e-mail 2 months ago requesting that she get current or I would levy the penalty on all past-due payments, and start holding firm on charging it on all future late payments. No response to that e-mail. I gave her a deadline of August 14th to get current. No response, no payment.
I'm now adding late payments to her outstanding balance. I have yet to hear anything from her via e-mail. I have confirmed via her CPA that she has received the e-mails.
Legally, thinking forward to a possible situation where we hit August 16th's loan maturity date, when she owes principal + past due payments + late fees, and her not having the money to pay, a possible gap I see is that she can simply deny knowing I had reached out to her.
-The loan contract specifies the late penalty can be applied once any payment is 5 days late. She's clearly in breach of that as per the contract, much less me telling her.
Do I have any obligation to ensure she is aware that the late penalties are now being assessed? Or does the contract language, which clearly outlines that, serve as sufficient enough grounds even though we had not levied it until now? If I need to send her a certified letter letting her know, I will, but if I don't have to, then I won't.
Thoughts?
Even if it was not, that doesn't mean you're out of luck. The note should also have a provision indicating how notices should be served--i.e., by email, fax (believe it or not), certified mail, overnight mail, etc. What does that provision say?
There is no mention of how notices should be served...there's honestly no mention of notices in general.
There is a line that I'm confused on. It says "The undersigned hereby waives presentment, demand of payment, notice and protest thereof of this note, and also hereby waives the benefit of my homestead exemption as to this debt, and agree to pay all costs of collection, including reasonable attorney's fees, in case payment is not made in accordance with the provision of this note."
What does the homestead exemption part mean?
[Also, thanks for the input, and sorry again re. the Cat thread...the rant wasn't directed at you specificaly. It just really hit a nerve when people were telling me I didn't care about my pets, especially after I lost my Moose a month or so ago...]
Yes - unsecured note unfortunately. I wish that wasn't the case just because I think at this point, she lacks all motivation to pay. I agree re. the attorney's fees. I'm very glad that language is in there. I'm already in collections on another note that is far worse than this one as far as delinquency and being difficult to deal with. Suit has been filed, so we'll see what happens there. This lady's store just happened to burn down over the weekend...so that's a little interesting given her debt issues.The homestead exemption refers to the fact that in some states a debtor can't be forced to sell his/her house to cover an unpaid debt. I'm assuming this debt was unsecured so am not sure why that's in there, and I don't know if this is a proper waiver (might need, for instance, spousal consent). For your purposes, just ignore it.Does note that no notice is required that the charges are being assessed, and says re. the late payment and subsequent note call provision, "failure to exercise this option shall not constitute a waiver of the right to exercise this option in the event of any subsequent default or defaults." I'm assuming this basically means that just because we didn't start charging the penalty from day 1 doesn't mean we can't start charging it now.A well-written promissory note will have language stating both that (1) no notice is required that the late charges are being assessed, and (2) failure to enforce a breach, etc. will not act as a waiver of the breach or of any remedy associated with it. I'm hoping your note was well crafted.Lawyer question for you guys...not sure if this falls under contract law or what...
Short back-story: My father made several personal loans. Contracts were signed, all documents are up to snuff...My father is unable to handle his business affairs for a while, so I am managing, have full POA, etc.
Terms of the note are as follows:
- 2-year term
-Interest only payments due on the 14th of each month
-5% penalty can be added to the monthly payment if payment is beyond 5 days past-due.
One of the loans is very delinquent. She's currently 6 months past due (owes March-Aug). Up until now, we had not charged her the late penalty on anything...I received Feb-March over the course of 3 months, and didn't levy the penalty. I sent her an e-mail 2 months ago requesting that she get current or I would levy the penalty on all past-due payments, and start holding firm on charging it on all future late payments. No response to that e-mail. I gave her a deadline of August 14th to get current. No response, no payment.
I'm now adding late payments to her outstanding balance. I have yet to hear anything from her via e-mail. I have confirmed via her CPA that she has received the e-mails.
Legally, thinking forward to a possible situation where we hit August 16th's loan maturity date, when she owes principal + past due payments + late fees, and her not having the money to pay, a possible gap I see is that she can simply deny knowing I had reached out to her.
-The loan contract specifies the late penalty can be applied once any payment is 5 days late. She's clearly in breach of that as per the contract, much less me telling her.
Do I have any obligation to ensure she is aware that the late penalties are now being assessed? Or does the contract language, which clearly outlines that, serve as sufficient enough grounds even though we had not levied it until now? If I need to send her a certified letter letting her know, I will, but if I don't have to, then I won't.
Thoughts?
Even if it was not, that doesn't mean you're out of luck. The note should also have a provision indicating how notices should be served--i.e., by email, fax (believe it or not), certified mail, overnight mail, etc. What does that provision say?
There is no mention of how notices should be served...there's honestly no mention of notices in general.
There is a line that I'm confused on. It says "The undersigned hereby waives presentment, demand of payment, notice and protest thereof of this note, and also hereby waives the benefit of my homestead exemption as to this debt, and agree to pay all costs of collection, including reasonable attorney's fees, in case payment is not made in accordance with the provision of this note."
What does the homestead exemption part mean?
[Also, thanks for the input, and sorry again re. the Cat thread...the rant wasn't directed at you specificaly. It just really hit a nerve when people were telling me I didn't care about my pets, especially after I lost my Moose a month or so ago...]
Sounds like you have the favorable language in there and should be good--nice that you have the attorneys' fees provision as well, so that you are made whole for your costs of enforcement.
No worries re cat; completely understandable given your recent loss. I think there was only one person in there who was questioning whether you're a good kitty parent.![]()
Good point. I didn't even think about the "oral understanding" side of things.Generally speaking, it's rarely a bad idea just to send a notice of default and reservation of rights letter via certified mail. Then the other party will have a tougher time arguing you had some sort of oral understanding or agreement contrary to the terms of the loan documents.Does note that no notice is required that the charges are being assessed, and says re. the late payment and subsequent note call provision, "failure to exercise this option shall not constitute a waiver of the right to exercise this option in the event of any subsequent default or defaults." I'm assuming this basically means that just because we didn't start charging the penalty from day 1 doesn't mean we can't start charging it now.A well-written promissory note will have language stating both that (1) no notice is required that the late charges are being assessed, and (2) failure to enforce a breach, etc. will not act as a waiver of the breach or of any remedy associated with it. I'm hoping your note was well crafted.Lawyer question for you guys...not sure if this falls under contract law or what...
Short back-story: My father made several personal loans. Contracts were signed, all documents are up to snuff...My father is unable to handle his business affairs for a while, so I am managing, have full POA, etc.
Terms of the note are as follows:
- 2-year term
-Interest only payments due on the 14th of each month
-5% penalty can be added to the monthly payment if payment is beyond 5 days past-due.
One of the loans is very delinquent. She's currently 6 months past due (owes March-Aug). Up until now, we had not charged her the late penalty on anything...I received Feb-March over the course of 3 months, and didn't levy the penalty. I sent her an e-mail 2 months ago requesting that she get current or I would levy the penalty on all past-due payments, and start holding firm on charging it on all future late payments. No response to that e-mail. I gave her a deadline of August 14th to get current. No response, no payment.
I'm now adding late payments to her outstanding balance. I have yet to hear anything from her via e-mail. I have confirmed via her CPA that she has received the e-mails.
Legally, thinking forward to a possible situation where we hit August 16th's loan maturity date, when she owes principal + past due payments + late fees, and her not having the money to pay, a possible gap I see is that she can simply deny knowing I had reached out to her.
-The loan contract specifies the late penalty can be applied once any payment is 5 days late. She's clearly in breach of that as per the contract, much less me telling her.
Do I have any obligation to ensure she is aware that the late penalties are now being assessed? Or does the contract language, which clearly outlines that, serve as sufficient enough grounds even though we had not levied it until now? If I need to send her a certified letter letting her know, I will, but if I don't have to, then I won't.
Thoughts?
Even if it was not, that doesn't mean you're out of luck. The note should also have a provision indicating how notices should be served--i.e., by email, fax (believe it or not), certified mail, overnight mail, etc. What does that provision say?
There is no mention of how notices should be served...there's honestly no mention of notices in general.
There is a line that I'm confused on. It says "The undersigned hereby waives presentment, demand of payment, notice and protest thereof of this note, and also hereby waives the benefit of my homestead exemption as to this debt, and agree to pay all costs of collection, including reasonable attorney's fees, in case payment is not made in accordance with the provision of this note."
What does the homestead exemption part mean?
[Also, thanks for the input, and sorry again re. the Cat thread...the rant wasn't directed at you specificaly. It just really hit a nerve when people were telling me I didn't care about my pets, especially after I lost my Moose a month or so ago...]
I'm just not going to practice. I couldn't deal with it. People (IMO) need to handle their #### up front and the practice of law just doesn't seem conducive to that.Bolded #1: You're going to blow a ####### gasket if you get worked up about this. It happens constantly.Ok current attorneys: My office works against the same opponent for every single case, in different types of cases generally within a few categories. We are repeat opponents, I suppose you could say. I have a question for you, because I want to know if this is a wider part of law or just the other party. Does the below sort of gamesmanship and (IMO) crap happen often?
All summer I have been prepping for a hearing. My supervising attorneys have traveled multiple places around the country to interview witnesses, prepare for the hearing, build a case timeline, etc. The date got set with the other party a while ago.
Now, right as we are about to go to the hearing, it is moved back because the other attorney could no longer be available on the dates set BECAUSE HE "HAD" TO GO ON VACATION those dates. Remind you, this is the guy we set the ####### date with in the first place. How the hell is that allowed? Like, dude, you helped set the date...take your vacation the next ####### week!!!
Also, I've worked on a number of cases that are flat out ridiculous. As in, there's a line of precedent directly on point with very clear standards (way more clear than anything I read in school) and the other side very clearly has no case at all. How often does this kind of crap happen where people are just filing something because they can, and because it's cheaper to settle than to go swat them away? It's insane.
Bolded #2: It's unethical to file an action not grounded in law or in a good faith argument for a change in the law. It happens sometimes, but it's usually not as intentional as you're thinking it is. Usually, a plaintiff's lawyer (who doesn't have a dozen summer associates, unlimited westlaw access, paralegals, multiple secretaries, and a law clerk) files an action he believes (but is incorrect in believing) is founded in the current law. Then a defense firm files a response to be removed from the action, and he starts scrambling so he doesn't look like an idiot. And often fails.
If they have no case at all, how is there a good faith basis for filing?I'm just not going to practice. I couldn't deal with it. People (IMO) need to handle their #### up front and the practice of law just doesn't seem conducive to that.Bolded #1: You're going to blow a ####### gasket if you get worked up about this. It happens constantly.Ok current attorneys: My office works against the same opponent for every single case, in different types of cases generally within a few categories. We are repeat opponents, I suppose you could say. I have a question for you, because I want to know if this is a wider part of law or just the other party. Does the below sort of gamesmanship and (IMO) crap happen often?
All summer I have been prepping for a hearing. My supervising attorneys have traveled multiple places around the country to interview witnesses, prepare for the hearing, build a case timeline, etc. The date got set with the other party a while ago.
Now, right as we are about to go to the hearing, it is moved back because the other attorney could no longer be available on the dates set BECAUSE HE "HAD" TO GO ON VACATION those dates. Remind you, this is the guy we set the ####### date with in the first place. How the hell is that allowed? Like, dude, you helped set the date...take your vacation the next ####### week!!!
Also, I've worked on a number of cases that are flat out ridiculous. As in, there's a line of precedent directly on point with very clear standards (way more clear than anything I read in school) and the other side very clearly has no case at all. How often does this kind of crap happen where people are just filing something because they can, and because it's cheaper to settle than to go swat them away? It's insane.
Bolded #2: It's unethical to file an action not grounded in law or in a good faith argument for a change in the law. It happens sometimes, but it's usually not as intentional as you're thinking it is. Usually, a plaintiff's lawyer (who doesn't have a dozen summer associates, unlimited westlaw access, paralegals, multiple secretaries, and a law clerk) files an action he believes (but is incorrect in believing) is founded in the current law. Then a defense firm files a response to be removed from the action, and he starts scrambling so he doesn't look like an idiot. And often fails.
To be fair, in this particular case, I think they could argue a good faith basis for filing, but it's a big opponent with decades of experience going back and forth between us. They should know better on some of these. Like, a majority of what I have seen has been situations that could conceivably go either way but that I think we'd be the favorites to win, but aren't outlandish. Then there's just a couple...ugh. Also, I'm not at a firm, and I haven't used Westlaw all summer. We actually have physical and digital copies of our own of every single opinion in this particular line of cases. It's actually been really nice.
Aside from this one type of case, most of my work has been interpreting documents and agreements and such and analyzing how they have changed, how they might continue to change, and why. Oh, and I've had some projects suggesting revisions to governing documents. It's been fascinating.
Me too, although it was long ago....
Ok current attorneys: My office works against the same opponent for every single case, in different types of cases generally within a few categories. We are repeat opponents, I suppose you could say. I have a question for you, because I want to know if this is a wider part of law or just the other party. Does the below sort of gamesmanship and (IMO) crap happen often?
All summer I have been prepping for a hearing. My supervising attorneys have traveled multiple places around the country to interview witnesses, prepare for the hearing, build a case timeline, etc. The date got set with the other party a while ago.
Now, right as we are about to go to the hearing, it is moved back because the other attorney could no longer be available on the dates set BECAUSE HE "HAD" TO GO ON VACATION those dates. Remind you, this is the guy we set the ####### date with in the first place. How the hell is that allowed? Like, dude, you helped set the date...take your vacation the next ####### week!!!
Also, I've worked on a number of cases that are flat out ridiculous. As in, there's a line of precedent directly on point with very clear standards (way more clear than anything I read in school) and the other side very clearly has no case at all. How often does this kind of crap happen where people are just filing something because they can, and because it's cheaper to settle than to go swat them away? It's insane.
You could practice and simply not be a litigator.I'm just not going to practice. I couldn't deal with it. People (IMO) need to handle their #### up front and the practice of law just doesn't seem conducive to that.Bolded #1: You're going to blow a ####### gasket if you get worked up about this. It happens constantly.Ok current attorneys: My office works against the same opponent for every single case, in different types of cases generally within a few categories. We are repeat opponents, I suppose you could say. I have a question for you, because I want to know if this is a wider part of law or just the other party. Does the below sort of gamesmanship and (IMO) crap happen often?
All summer I have been prepping for a hearing. My supervising attorneys have traveled multiple places around the country to interview witnesses, prepare for the hearing, build a case timeline, etc. The date got set with the other party a while ago.
Now, right as we are about to go to the hearing, it is moved back because the other attorney could no longer be available on the dates set BECAUSE HE "HAD" TO GO ON VACATION those dates. Remind you, this is the guy we set the ####### date with in the first place. How the hell is that allowed? Like, dude, you helped set the date...take your vacation the next ####### week!!!
Also, I've worked on a number of cases that are flat out ridiculous. As in, there's a line of precedent directly on point with very clear standards (way more clear than anything I read in school) and the other side very clearly has no case at all. How often does this kind of crap happen where people are just filing something because they can, and because it's cheaper to settle than to go swat them away? It's insane.
Bolded #2: It's unethical to file an action not grounded in law or in a good faith argument for a change in the law. It happens sometimes, but it's usually not as intentional as you're thinking it is. Usually, a plaintiff's lawyer (who doesn't have a dozen summer associates, unlimited westlaw access, paralegals, multiple secretaries, and a law clerk) files an action he believes (but is incorrect in believing) is founded in the current law. Then a defense firm files a response to be removed from the action, and he starts scrambling so he doesn't look like an idiot. And often fails.
To be fair, in this particular case, I think they could argue a good faith basis for filing, but it's a big opponent with decades of experience going back and forth between us. They should know better on some of these. Like, a majority of what I have seen has been situations that could conceivably go either way but that I think we'd be the favorites to win, but aren't outlandish. Then there's just a couple...ugh. Also, I'm not at a firm, and I haven't used Westlaw all summer. We actually have physical and digital copies of our own of every single opinion in this particular line of cases. It's actually been really nice.
Aside from this one type of case, most of my work has been interpreting documents and agreements and such and analyzing how they have changed, how they might continue to change, and why. Oh, and I've had some projects suggesting revisions to governing documents. It's been fascinating.
I know that your focus has been on other, non-legal options, though.I can see them not having access to some facts that I do if their client wasn't 100% forthright or "misremembered" some things that my side has actual records of. And some of it is just me being a bit hyperbolic and biased. Also, reviewing the rules governing these procedures, I think there may not be a good faith basis requirement to file claims in this situation. The only requirement is that the other side "believes he has a justifiable grievance," and my understanding is that it is impossible to prove he does not. Work isn't being done in a state or federal court, per se. All of these are arbitrations governed by a very specifically outlined procedure.If they have no case at all, how is there a good faith basis for filing?I'm just not going to practice. I couldn't deal with it. People (IMO) need to handle their #### up front and the practice of law just doesn't seem conducive to that.Bolded #1: You're going to blow a ####### gasket if you get worked up about this. It happens constantly.Ok current attorneys: My office works against the same opponent for every single case, in different types of cases generally within a few categories. We are repeat opponents, I suppose you could say. I have a question for you, because I want to know if this is a wider part of law or just the other party. Does the below sort of gamesmanship and (IMO) crap happen often?
All summer I have been prepping for a hearing. My supervising attorneys have traveled multiple places around the country to interview witnesses, prepare for the hearing, build a case timeline, etc. The date got set with the other party a while ago.
Now, right as we are about to go to the hearing, it is moved back because the other attorney could no longer be available on the dates set BECAUSE HE "HAD" TO GO ON VACATION those dates. Remind you, this is the guy we set the ####### date with in the first place. How the hell is that allowed? Like, dude, you helped set the date...take your vacation the next ####### week!!!
Also, I've worked on a number of cases that are flat out ridiculous. As in, there's a line of precedent directly on point with very clear standards (way more clear than anything I read in school) and the other side very clearly has no case at all. How often does this kind of crap happen where people are just filing something because they can, and because it's cheaper to settle than to go swat them away? It's insane.
Bolded #2: It's unethical to file an action not grounded in law or in a good faith argument for a change in the law. It happens sometimes, but it's usually not as intentional as you're thinking it is. Usually, a plaintiff's lawyer (who doesn't have a dozen summer associates, unlimited westlaw access, paralegals, multiple secretaries, and a law clerk) files an action he believes (but is incorrect in believing) is founded in the current law. Then a defense firm files a response to be removed from the action, and he starts scrambling so he doesn't look like an idiot. And often fails.
To be fair, in this particular case, I think they could argue a good faith basis for filing, but it's a big opponent with decades of experience going back and forth between us. They should know better on some of these. Like, a majority of what I have seen has been situations that could conceivably go either way but that I think we'd be the favorites to win, but aren't outlandish. Then there's just a couple...ugh. Also, I'm not at a firm, and I haven't used Westlaw all summer. We actually have physical and digital copies of our own of every single opinion in this particular line of cases. It's actually been really nice.
Aside from this one type of case, most of my work has been interpreting documents and agreements and such and analyzing how they have changed, how they might continue to change, and why. Oh, and I've had some projects suggesting revisions to governing documents. It's been fascinating.
I can see them not having access to some facts that I do if their client wasn't 100% forthright or "misremembered" some things that my side has actual records of. And some of it is just me being a bit hyperbolic and biased. Also, there's not a good faith basis requirement to file claims in this situation.
Work isn't being done in a U.S. Court, per se. All of these are arbitrations governed by a very specifically outlined procedure. The only requirement is that the other side "believes he has a justifiable grievance," and my understanding is that it is impossible to prove he does not.
That was probably material to the discussion. Sorry to have left it out. But, yes, all of my work is in this area. Basically nothing in a true court. The only case we have (that I know of) in front of a real court is for outside counsel to handle.
That's entirely possible. I think it's unlikely for a couple reasons (and hasn't ever happened as far as I can tell from the past cases). Also sometimes it's funny because the other side has sent text messages or spoken to the media at the time in question, and then later contends the opposite of what he had said at the time the incident actually happened (on both sides. Some of the people on our side have totally lost themselves a case because they spoke and basically said they did do exactly what the other side said they did...lol).Also, I'm sure your client is above board and would never do anything like this, but there have been several situations during my career where I've found irrefutable proof that the company with "actual records" is completely full of #### and making things up in order to avoid being cast in judgment in a lawsuit. And several where I'm pretty sure they were, but I didn't have irrefutable proof of it.
Yeah, that's essentially a good faith basis for the filing.That's entirely possible. I think it's unlikely for a couple reasons (and hasn't ever happened as far as I can tell from the past cases). Also sometimes it's funny because the other side has sent text messages or spoken to the media at the time in question, and then later contends the opposite of what he had said at the time the incident actually happened (on both sides. Some of the people on our side have totally lost themselves a case because they spoke and basically said they did do exactly what the other side said they did...lol).Also, I'm sure your client is above board and would never do anything like this, but there have been several situations during my career where I've found irrefutable proof that the company with "actual records" is completely full of #### and making things up in order to avoid being cast in judgment in a lawsuit. And several where I'm pretty sure they were, but I didn't have irrefutable proof of it.
As to the above post - is that a good faith basis? I just mean the rules governing the procedure for bringing a grievance never use the phrase "good faith basis." I thought that was one of those legal magic phrases that had to be used to get the effect.
I'm really glad this happened today. I feel like I'm learning things that are good to know. Thank you for helping me understand!
ETA: as usual if this is annoying feel free to tell me to stop. But I know I find it helpful and I hope it is at least amusing for y'all, perhaps breaking up some daily monotony in some way,
You're going to hate this advice, but if this is the stuff you like, you really should consider plaintiff work.A lot of what I've done is put together the stories. I call them timelines, but idk why. It just feels like I'm building a timeline. It's pretty cool a lot of the time - basically like being a detective. I have to go through all the reports generated by what is sort of a third-party and sort of our side. Basically, the person with the grievance ha,s like 99% of the time, visited what is essentially a doctor for treatment over a period of time. During that period, the doctor took notes for every visit (and with his other patients) and filed them that day or in batches at the end of every week. The notes have a very specific format that every doctor in the entire network has to fill out for every patient, every time.
So I get to go through all of those. Then I get to look at all the work performance of the claimant, including evaluations by his supervisors. Then I get to look at anything and everything in the media (including social media sometimes, which can be really funny) around the person that is said by either side. Finally, I get to put all of that in order (I use excel with a date column for every "event" or document so it's easy to sort all sorts of ways) and then add in all the job assignments the person had and then compare it all to what the grievance is about.
It's pretty cool. And even better, it seems that what I recommend and pass along really carries some significant weight. Some of my other assignments (like memos analyzing a line of precedent or something) have come back with heavy edits, but as the summer has gone along the edits have become lighter. Maybe it's just that supervisors are busier, but with my ego I take that as a sign that I'm learning and getting better at the analysis and the writing.
For the record: doctors and patients are just the best and easiest analogy to use, and close enough, because explaining it in more detail would A) make it way too obvious what I do and B) could take a lot longer to explain.
I don't doubt that I would, but...how long would I have to do boring and tedious stuff as a newly minted lawyer before I got to do the stuff I'm handling now? I feel like I've got a really unique opportunity to be here for the summer, but I also note that every single person who is an attorney here worked 3+ years in BigLaw first. No desire at all to do that.You're going to hate this advice, but if this is the stuff you like, you really should consider plaintiff work.A lot of what I've done is put together the stories. I call them timelines, but idk why. It just feels like I'm building a timeline. It's pretty cool a lot of the time - basically like being a detective. I have to go through all the reports generated by what is sort of a third-party and sort of our side. Basically, the person with the grievance ha,s like 99% of the time, visited what is essentially a doctor for treatment over a period of time. During that period, the doctor took notes for every visit (and with his other patients) and filed them that day or in batches at the end of every week. The notes have a very specific format that every doctor in the entire network has to fill out for every patient, every time.
So I get to go through all of those. Then I get to look at all the work performance of the claimant, including evaluations by his supervisors. Then I get to look at anything and everything in the media (including social media sometimes, which can be really funny) around the person that is said by either side. Finally, I get to put all of that in order (I use excel with a date column for every "event" or document so it's easy to sort all sorts of ways) and then add in all the job assignments the person had and then compare it all to what the grievance is about.
It's pretty cool. And even better, it seems that what I recommend and pass along really carries some significant weight. Some of my other assignments (like memos analyzing a line of precedent or something) have come back with heavy edits, but as the summer has gone along the edits have become lighter. Maybe it's just that supervisors are busier, but with my ego I take that as a sign that I'm learning and getting better at the analysis and the writing.
For the record: doctors and patients are just the best and easiest analogy to use, and close enough, because explaining it in more detail would A) make it way too obvious what I do and B) could take a lot longer to explain.
Sports-related... probably depends on where you work, but usually very little.I don't doubt that I would, but...how long would I have to do boring and tedious stuff as a newly minted lawyer before I got to do the stuff I'm handling now? I feel like I've got a really unique opportunity to be here for the summer, but I also note that every single person who is an attorney here worked 3+ years in BigLaw first. No desire at all to do that.You're going to hate this advice, but if this is the stuff you like, you really should consider plaintiff work.A lot of what I've done is put together the stories. I call them timelines, but idk why. It just feels like I'm building a timeline. It's pretty cool a lot of the time - basically like being a detective. I have to go through all the reports generated by what is sort of a third-party and sort of our side. Basically, the person with the grievance ha,s like 99% of the time, visited what is essentially a doctor for treatment over a period of time. During that period, the doctor took notes for every visit (and with his other patients) and filed them that day or in batches at the end of every week. The notes have a very specific format that every doctor in the entire network has to fill out for every patient, every time.
So I get to go through all of those. Then I get to look at all the work performance of the claimant, including evaluations by his supervisors. Then I get to look at anything and everything in the media (including social media sometimes, which can be really funny) around the person that is said by either side. Finally, I get to put all of that in order (I use excel with a date column for every "event" or document so it's easy to sort all sorts of ways) and then add in all the job assignments the person had and then compare it all to what the grievance is about.
It's pretty cool. And even better, it seems that what I recommend and pass along really carries some significant weight. Some of my other assignments (like memos analyzing a line of precedent or something) have come back with heavy edits, but as the summer has gone along the edits have become lighter. Maybe it's just that supervisors are busier, but with my ego I take that as a sign that I'm learning and getting better at the analysis and the writing.
For the record: doctors and patients are just the best and easiest analogy to use, and close enough, because explaining it in more detail would A) make it way too obvious what I do and B) could take a lot longer to explain.
How much plaintiffs practice is sports-related?
I did say 6 months max.6 months... pfft. I was in court my first week without a net.
Granted small small firm.
I always have my phone to access e-mail & documents in court--except Joliet where I can't even bring it in the courthouse because I haven't bothered to drive all of the way down there on a Tuesday to get the proper ID. I can't speak for every judge in the Daley Center (there's over 70 of them) but none that I've been in front of have had a problem using any technology I want during trials/hearings. No answering the phone, of course.How many of you use electronic devices in court?
I use my iPad and it's incredibly efficient compared to paper files. It connects right to my firm's file storing software and I can get to any document or note pertaining to any case my firm in a matter of seconds. Also, while I'm waiting for court cases to be called I'm able to access e-mails and use that time to correspond with clients or opposing counsels via e-mail or iMessage. I also can stay in constant contact with my staff in the event a client is late for court or is calling because they broke down on the way or whatever.
I ask though because there appears to be some controversy, at least in my jurisdiction, over the use of electronic devices. We have one judge who forbade them until enough of the attorneys spoke to him in chambers and explained how difficult that ban was making their lives. There's also the public perception that a lawyer on his or her device may not be paying attention to a hearing. This came to a head for me yesterday when a pro se client I was advisory counsel for accused me (after accusing the judge and prosecutor of corruption) of not paying attention to his trial because I was on my iPad. While the reality was that I was on my iPad because I let him use my paper file and his hundreds of case documents became disorganized by him so I reverted to my much more organized electronic file, I'm sure it looked potentially bad as there were points during his painstakingly long cross examinations where I was probably communicating with my office.
I'm curious as to what other jurisdictions are doing, if anything, regarding attorney uses of iPads, laptops, or even smartphones during court.
Get used to it.Ok current attorneys: My office works against the same opponent for every single case, in different types of cases generally within a few categories. We are repeat opponents, I suppose you could say. I have a question for you, because I want to know if this is a wider part of law or just the other party. Does the below sort of gamesmanship and (IMO) crap happen often?
All summer I have been prepping for a hearing. My supervising attorneys have traveled multiple places around the country to interview witnesses, prepare for the hearing, build a case timeline, etc. The date got set with the other party a while ago.
Now, right as we are about to go to the hearing, it is moved back because the other attorney could no longer be available on the dates set BECAUSE HE "HAD" TO GO ON VACATION those dates. Remind you, this is the guy we set the ####### date with in the first place. How the hell is that allowed? Like, dude, you helped set the date...take your vacation the next ####### week!!!
Also, I've worked on a number of cases that are flat out ridiculous. As in, there's a line of precedent directly on point with very clear standards (way more clear than anything I read in school) and the other side very clearly has no case at all. How often does this kind of crap happen where people are just filing something because they can, and because it's cheaper to settle than to go swat them away? It's insane.
My first boss sent me to court to argue a motion the first day on the job.6 months... pfft. I was in court my first week without a net.
Granted small small firm.
Otis really is taking that diet challenge seriously.My life was conditionally threatened today. No shtick.
May need to have a drink or two.
I showed up to work hungover the day after I got my bar results and had been out celebrating with classmates. Bosses had the receptionist, who was a notary, swear me in and send me home to put on a suit and go argue a motion. Good times.Christo said:My first boss sent me to court to argue a motion the first day on the job.Yankee23Fan said:6 months... pfft. I was in court my first week without a net.
Granted small small firm.
Well, to be fair it's not that simple. In my jurisdiction there's actually a victim's bill of rights and every prosecutor's office has a "victim advocate". That statute also permits a victim to sue the state if the state doesn't give reasonable consideration to the wishes and concerns of the victim so prosecutors will, often begrudgingly, defer to the wishes of a victim. Some prosecuting agencies will do so far more than others and almost turn into the victim's lawyer. As such, in my jurisdiction a squeaky victim can actually have some pretty hefty influence on a case by providing evidence to the advocate, continually voicing a desired outcome, etc. My jurisdiction also allows a victim to have his or her own attorney with standing to file some limited pleadings.The only thing your friend can do is testify if asked to do so (and/or to write a victim impact statement).
That's some kind of luck there.Client had to go for a defense medical examination yesterday. Walked into the office with her sister, who goes with her to all of her medical appointments.
Turns out sister went to medical school with the doctor and they were friends who had lost touch. DME had a huge crush on her in medical school and is now divorced. Kind of looking forward to the guy's report now.
does it make me that I've read this entire thread and I'm not a lawyer?